seahorse wrote:
Yesplease,
Unless I'm mistaken, in the 70s oil embargo, oil production was decreased by 4% and thus demand in the US dropped accordingly. This was not a "compounding" drop, thus, it required only a 4% drop in demand for four years.
You are mistaken. I'm not referring to the drop during(?)/post the 70s embargo, but the drop after the price spike in the late seventies/early eighties, which was around 5-6% depending on whether we measure it compared to a static consumption rate or a compound rate. I'm not sure what the decline rate after the embargo was because there isn't data about a local maximum.
seahorse wrote:
This is very different from having a 6% drop per year, which is in effect, like compound interest. So, at the end of 4 years, a six percent drop in production each year means world oil productions drops by about a third (using rule of 72).
You aren't using the
rule of 72 correctly. You stated that oil production would drop by about a third, so it's FV is about .66 compared to it's PV of 1. Since we're looking at small rates, just like in the Wikipedia entry we can approximate the ln(1+r) as r, and ln(.666)=.41, so t=.41/r. The time you're using is four years, so we find that the decline rate needed for oil production to drop by a third in four years is roughly 10%.
Your statement it's "like compound interest" is off because we're looking at periodic compounding wrt decline rates, not growth rates, which are associated w/ interest rates. Just like periodic compound growth rate leads to something that is greater than linear growth, periodic compound decline leads to something that is less than linear decline, which is why the IEA has the decline of current fields going flatter as time progresses. Each 6% decline per year is smaller than the previous 6% decline per year because the each year the existing wells produce less. This means that each year we loose less oil and the production curve doesn't look like compound interest, going faster and faster to no production, but instead looks like compound decline, losing less and less each year and flattening out as time goes by.
seahorse wrote:
Even if its only 20%, it doesn't matter, 20% is five times the drop experienced in the 70s.
We dropped consumption from ~19mbpd in the late 70s to ~15mbpd in the early 80s, which is a 4/19=21% drop. We've already seen ~6% decline rates over four years resulting in a ~20% drop.
seahorse wrote:
Further, in the 70s, there was cheap oil waiting to be turned back on. That's not the case now.
Exactly... So instead of another generation of gas guzzlers we'll probably see consistent production of vehicles w/ greater fuel economy.
seahorse wrote:
Again, the point of all this is that oil's current "price signal" is the wrong signal. With PO close on the horizon, the optimist previously argued that oil would rise in price thus triggering a move to get the harder to reach oil and alternatives to oil. Interestingly, that isn't happening.
It's the right signal because people are using less of it voluntarily, to the point where OPEC has to cutback 2mbpd just to stabilize prices. When people want to use more of it, or the production decline rate catches up to the consumption decline rate, we'll again see price signals to produce more oil and/or use alternatives.
seahorse wrote:
The debate on PO used to be whether alternatives to oil could be found in time and at any price. Neither side considered the position that what if oil dropped in price when the world was on the verge of PO.
Why wouldn't it drop in price before PO? Demand tends to change much more than supply, so increased volatility is expected and many have mentioned it. Producers are cutting back to keep profitability up, which also reduces volatility, but no one can force the world economy to keep demand up regardless of the cost.
Professor Membrane wrote:
Not now son! I'm making...TOAST!